If that's the case, shouldn't we find all murderers innocent if they were under the influence at the time of the crime (actus non facit reum nisi mens sit rea)?
According to the study described in the article cited by Guest, these murders would count towards that 75K deaths per year mortality rate. In fact, close to 41,000 of the "some 75,000" deaths were due to indirect causal factors like these. I'm not saying that these contributing factors should be ruled out
per se, but given that the remedy thereof could very well be
different from that of deaths where alcoholism was a more direct causal factor (e.g., through "cirrhosis of the liver, cancer and other diseases linked to drinking too much beer, wine and spirits"), I think that a distinction should be made.
These are the criteria by which this study allegedly defines the "excessive drinker":
Researchers considered any man who averaged more than two drinks per day or more than four drinks per occasion to be an excessive drinker. For women it was more than one drink per day or more than three drinks per occasion.
"These results emphasize the importance of adopting effective strategies to reduce excessive drinking, including increasing alcohol excise taxes and screening for alcohol misuse in clinical settings," the study said.http://www.msnbc.msn.com/id/6089353/[/list]
I could not find a link to the actual study itself, so a number of questions remain unanswered, such as:
- How is a drink defined?
Did the researchers take into consideration the alcoholic content of "the drinks?" A couple bottles of beer on a hot summer afternoon is hardly excessive in my book.
- Who did the study? Was there a vested interest involved?
The article noted that this was a study published by the CDC (
which department?) Might government sponsorship have something to do with the stated importance of increasing alcohol excise taxes and required drug screenings in the workplace?
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